CXC CAPE Communication Studies — Paper 01 (Multiple Choice)

Total marks: 45 · Duration: 1 hour 30 minutes

Instructions to candidates

• Answer ALL 45 questions. Each question is worth ONE mark.
• Each item is followed by four suggested responses. Choose the response you consider best and shade the corresponding space on your answer sheet.
• If you wish to change an answer, erase it completely before shading your new choice.
• You may not use a dictionary or other reference material.
• Paper 01 assesses Module 1 (Gathering and Processing), Module 2 (Language and Community) and Module 3 (Speaking and Writing).

Paper

Module 1 — Gathering and Processing Information (Questions 1–15)

1. Data that a researcher collects first-hand for a specific purpose are best described as (A) primary sources (B) secondary sources (C) reference sources (D) tertiary sources

2. A writer who reads several articles and combines their main ideas into a single overview is engaged in (A) plagiarism (B) paraphrasing (C) synthesis (D) quotation

3. Which of the following is the MOST reliable source for current medical information? (A) A television advertisement (B) A personal blog (C) A peer-reviewed medical journal (D) A social-media post

4. The main purpose of skimming a text is to (A) memorise every detail (B) locate a specific fact (C) correct grammatical errors (D) grasp the general idea quickly

5. Restating a passage in one's own words while keeping the meaning is called (A) referencing (B) paraphrasing (C) quoting (D) summarising

6. Information gathered from a survey the researcher personally conducted is (A) secondary data (B) primary data (C) biased data (D) qualitative only

7. A key reason for citing sources in a piece of writing is to (A) confuse the reader (B) avoid plagiarism and give credit (C) fill empty space (D) increase the word count

8. Which reading strategy is used to find a particular phone number in a directory? (A) Scanning (B) Reflecting (C) Summarising (D) Skimming

9. A statement that can be proven true or false is a (A) fact (B) bias (C) prediction (D) opinion

10. Reading "between the lines" to grasp an unstated meaning is called (A) scanning (B) inferential comprehension (C) literal comprehension (D) proofreading

11. Which of the following BEST indicates that a website is credible? (A) It uses bright colours (B) It appears first in a search (C) It has many advertisements (D) It is authored by a recognised institution and dated

12. A researcher notices a source presents only one side of an argument. This suggests the source may be (A) biased (B) objective (C) academic (D) reliable

13. Condensing a long report into a few sentences that capture its essence is (A) synthesising (B) summarising (C) quoting (D) analysing

14. Which is an example of a secondary source? (A) An interview recorded at the event (B) A photograph taken at the event (C) An encyclopaedia article about the event (D) A diary written during an event

15. Evaluating information for accuracy, authority and currency is part of (A) transcription (B) note-making (C) narration (D) critical evaluation

Module 2 — Language and Community (Questions 16–30)

16. A language variety associated with a particular geographical area is a (A) jargon (B) dialect (C) register (D) slang

17. The variety of language considered appropriate for formal writing and official use is the (A) Standard (B) vernacular (C) Creole (D) idiolect

18. A Caribbean Creole that developed from contact between European and African languages is an example of a (A) pidgin-derived Creole (B) sign language (C) dead language (D) classical language

19. The way a speaker adjusts language according to audience and situation is called (A) register (B) accent (C) grammar (D) dialect

20. "The doctor spoke in technical terms the patient could not follow." This best illustrates a barrier of (A) distance (B) attitude (C) noise (D) jargon

21. Non-verbal communication includes all of the following EXCEPT (A) gesture (B) posture (C) tone of a written memo (D) facial expression

22. A negative attitude that some hold toward Creole is that it is (A) "broken" or inferior English (B) the official language (C) suitable for all contexts (D) a rich cultural resource

23. The particular way an individual uses language, unique to them, is an (A) register (B) idiolect (C) dialect (D) accent

24. Physical interference such as a loud fan during a lecture is a form of (A) psychological noise (B) cultural noise (C) semantic noise (D) physical noise

25. Which factor MOST influences the choice of an appropriate register? (A) The length of the document (B) The audience and purpose (C) The time of day (D) The colour of the paper

26. A Caribbean territory where a French-lexicon Creole is widely spoken is (A) Barbados (B) Saint Lucia (C) Jamaica (D) Guyana

27. Communication fails when the receiver interprets a word differently from the sender's intention. This is a (A) channel barrier (B) physical barrier (C) mechanical barrier (D) semantic barrier

28. The dominant language variety used by a community in casual, everyday interaction is the (A) acrolect (B) technical register (C) standard written form (D) vernacular

29. Language plays a role in identity because it (A) prevents communication (B) signals a speaker's community and heritage (C) is the same everywhere (D) has no cultural value

30. A speaker who can move between Creole and Standard depending on context demonstrates (A) jargon (B) code-switching (C) monolingualism (D) illiteracy

Module 3 — Speaking and Writing (Questions 31–45)

31. Writing whose main purpose is to explain or inform is (A) expository (B) persuasive (C) narrative (D) descriptive

32. The type of writing that seeks to convince the reader to accept a point of view is (A) argumentative (B) narrative (C) expository (D) descriptive

33. A clear sentence that states the main idea of a paragraph is the (A) topic sentence (B) supporting detail (C) transition (D) conclusion

34. Which is MOST important when delivering an oral presentation? (A) Avoiding eye contact (B) Reading every word from a script (C) Speaking as fast as possible (D) Awareness of audience and clear delivery

35. Writing that appeals to the senses to create a vivid picture is (A) expository (B) argumentative (C) technical (D) descriptive

36. The purpose of a reflective piece is to (A) advertise a product (B) issue instructions (C) present statistics (D) explore the writer's thoughts and feelings about an experience

37. In an argumentative essay, acknowledging the opposing view is called (A) a summary (B) a fallacy (C) a topic sentence (D) a counter-argument

38. Which is an example of a logical fallacy? (A) Citing a reliable source (B) Supporting a claim with evidence (C) Attacking the person instead of the argument (D) Giving a clear example

39. The tone appropriate for a formal letter of complaint is (A) humorous (B) aggressive (C) sarcastic (D) courteous and firm

40. A narrative essay is organised primarily around (A) statistical tables (B) a list of instructions (C) a sequence of events (D) product features

41. The final stage of the writing process, checking for errors in grammar and spelling, is (A) drafting (B) outlining (C) proofreading (D) brainstorming

42. Words such as "however", "therefore" and "in addition" function as (A) conclusions (B) topic sentences (C) transitions (D) fallacies

43. Which is the BEST strategy for reducing nervousness before a speech? (A) Speaking without notes at random (B) Avoiding all preparation (C) Practising and knowing the material well (D) Ignoring the audience

44. A well-structured essay generally contains (A) only a conclusion (B) unconnected paragraphs (C) an introduction, body and conclusion (D) a single long paragraph

45. Persuasive appeals to the audience's sense of reason and evidence are appeals to (A) humour (B) emotion (pathos) (C) logic (logos) (D) credibility (ethos)

Answer Key

How Paper 01 is scored

Each correct response earns one mark; there is no penalty for incorrect responses, so candidates should attempt every question. The 45 marks from Paper 01 are combined with Paper 02 and the Internal Assessment to produce the overall Unit grade (reported on the scale Grade I – Grade VII, with I the highest). Questions are spread across all three Modules, so full-syllabus coverage is essential — do not neglect Module 2 (Language and Community), which candidates often under-prepare relative to the writing modules.