CXC CAPE Communication Studies — Paper 01 (Multiple Choice)

Total marks: 45 · Duration: 1 hour 30 minutes

Instructions to candidates

• Answer ALL 45 questions. Each question is worth ONE mark.
• Each item is followed by four suggested responses. Choose the response you consider best and shade the corresponding space on your answer sheet.
• If you wish to change an answer, erase it completely before shading your new choice.
• You may not use a dictionary or other reference material.
• Paper 01 assesses Module 1 (Gathering and Processing), Module 2 (Language and Community) and Module 3 (Speaking and Writing).

Paper

Module 1 — Gathering and Processing Information (Questions 1–15)

1. Data that a researcher collects first-hand for a specific purpose are best described as (A) secondary sources (B) primary sources (C) tertiary sources (D) reference sources

2. A writer who reads several articles and combines their main ideas into a single overview is engaged in (A) plagiarism (B) paraphrasing (C) synthesis (D) quotation

3. Which of the following is the MOST reliable source for current medical information? (A) A peer-reviewed medical journal (B) A personal blog (C) A social-media post (D) A television advertisement

4. The main purpose of skimming a text is to (A) memorise every detail (B) grasp the general idea quickly (C) locate a specific fact (D) correct grammatical errors

5. Restating a passage in one's own words while keeping the meaning is called (A) summarising (B) paraphrasing (C) quoting (D) referencing

6. Information gathered from a survey the researcher personally conducted is (A) secondary data (B) primary data (C) biased data (D) qualitative only

7. A key reason for citing sources in a piece of writing is to (A) increase the word count (B) avoid plagiarism and give credit (C) confuse the reader (D) fill empty space

8. Which reading strategy is used to find a particular phone number in a directory? (A) Skimming (B) Scanning (C) Reflecting (D) Summarising

9. A statement that can be proven true or false is a (A) fact (B) opinion (C) bias (D) prediction

10. Reading "between the lines" to grasp an unstated meaning is called (A) literal comprehension (B) inferential comprehension (C) scanning (D) proofreading

11. Which of the following BEST indicates that a website is credible? (A) It has many advertisements (B) It is authored by a recognised institution and dated (C) It uses bright colours (D) It appears first in a search

12. A researcher notices a source presents only one side of an argument. This suggests the source may be (A) reliable (B) objective (C) biased (D) academic

13. Condensing a long report into a few sentences that capture its essence is (A) synthesising (B) summarising (C) quoting (D) analysing

14. Which is an example of a secondary source? (A) A diary written during an event (B) An encyclopaedia article about the event (C) An interview recorded at the event (D) A photograph taken at the event

15. Evaluating information for accuracy, authority and currency is part of (A) note-making (B) critical evaluation (C) transcription (D) narration

Module 2 — Language and Community (Questions 16–30)

16. A language variety associated with a particular geographical area is a (A) register (B) dialect (C) jargon (D) slang

17. The variety of language considered appropriate for formal writing and official use is the (A) Creole (B) vernacular (C) Standard (D) idiolect

18. A Caribbean Creole that developed from contact between European and African languages is an example of a (A) classical language (B) pidgin-derived Creole (C) dead language (D) sign language

19. The way a speaker adjusts language according to audience and situation is called (A) dialect (B) register (C) accent (D) grammar

20. "The doctor spoke in technical terms the patient could not follow." This best illustrates a barrier of (A) attitude (B) jargon (C) noise (D) distance

21. Non-verbal communication includes all of the following EXCEPT (A) facial expression (B) gesture (C) tone of a written memo (D) posture

22. A negative attitude that some hold toward Creole is that it is (A) a rich cultural resource (B) "broken" or inferior English (C) suitable for all contexts (D) the official language

23. The particular way an individual uses language, unique to them, is an (A) idiolect (B) dialect (C) register (D) accent

24. Physical interference such as a loud fan during a lecture is a form of (A) semantic noise (B) psychological noise (C) physical noise (D) cultural noise

25. Which factor MOST influences the choice of an appropriate register? (A) The colour of the paper (B) The audience and purpose (C) The time of day (D) The length of the document

26. A Caribbean territory where a French-lexicon Creole is widely spoken is (A) Jamaica (B) Barbados (C) Saint Lucia (D) Guyana

27. Communication fails when the receiver interprets a word differently from the sender's intention. This is a (A) physical barrier (B) semantic barrier (C) mechanical barrier (D) channel barrier

28. The dominant language variety used by a community in casual, everyday interaction is the (A) vernacular (B) acrolect (C) standard written form (D) technical register

29. Language plays a role in identity because it (A) has no cultural value (B) signals a speaker's community and heritage (C) is the same everywhere (D) prevents communication

30. A speaker who can move between Creole and Standard depending on context demonstrates (A) monolingualism (B) code-switching (C) illiteracy (D) jargon

Module 3 — Speaking and Writing (Questions 31–45)

31. Writing whose main purpose is to explain or inform is (A) narrative (B) descriptive (C) expository (D) persuasive

32. The type of writing that seeks to convince the reader to accept a point of view is (A) descriptive (B) argumentative (C) narrative (D) expository

33. A clear sentence that states the main idea of a paragraph is the (A) supporting detail (B) topic sentence (C) transition (D) conclusion

34. Which is MOST important when delivering an oral presentation? (A) Reading every word from a script (B) Awareness of audience and clear delivery (C) Speaking as fast as possible (D) Avoiding eye contact

35. Writing that appeals to the senses to create a vivid picture is (A) expository (B) descriptive (C) argumentative (D) technical

36. The purpose of a reflective piece is to (A) present statistics (B) explore the writer's thoughts and feelings about an experience (C) advertise a product (D) issue instructions

37. In an argumentative essay, acknowledging the opposing view is called (A) a fallacy (B) a counter-argument (C) a topic sentence (D) a summary

38. Which is an example of a logical fallacy? (A) Supporting a claim with evidence (B) Attacking the person instead of the argument (C) Citing a reliable source (D) Giving a clear example

39. The tone appropriate for a formal letter of complaint is (A) sarcastic (B) humorous (C) courteous and firm (D) aggressive

40. A narrative essay is organised primarily around (A) a sequence of events (B) statistical tables (C) a list of instructions (D) product features

41. The final stage of the writing process, checking for errors in grammar and spelling, is (A) drafting (B) brainstorming (C) proofreading (D) outlining

42. Words such as "however", "therefore" and "in addition" function as (A) topic sentences (B) transitions (C) fallacies (D) conclusions

43. Which is the BEST strategy for reducing nervousness before a speech? (A) Avoiding all preparation (B) Practising and knowing the material well (C) Speaking without notes at random (D) Ignoring the audience

44. A well-structured essay generally contains (A) an introduction, body and conclusion (B) only a conclusion (C) unconnected paragraphs (D) a single long paragraph

45. Persuasive appeals to the audience's sense of reason and evidence are appeals to (A) emotion (pathos) (B) credibility (ethos) (C) logic (logos) (D) humour

Answer Key

How Paper 01 is scored

Each correct response earns one mark; there is no penalty for incorrect responses, so candidates should attempt every question. The 45 marks from Paper 01 are combined with Paper 02 and the Internal Assessment to produce the overall Unit grade (reported on the scale Grade I – Grade VII, with I the highest). Questions are spread across all three Modules, so full-syllabus coverage is essential — do not neglect Module 2 (Language and Community), which candidates often under-prepare relative to the writing modules.