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CXC CSEC·⚗️ Chemistry

CXC CSEC Chemistry — Paper 01 (Multiple Choice)

⏱ 75 minutes📊 60 marks📄 Paper 01 (Multiple Choice)
📚 Subject revision notes↩ All exam papers
ℹ️ About this paper: This is an exam-board-aligned practice paper written in the style of CXC CSEC— not an official past paper. Use it for timed practice, then check against the mark scheme included below. For official past papers, see the exam board's website.
00:00of 75:00

Total marks: 60 · Duration: 1 hour 15 minutes

Instructions to candidates

  • This paper has 60 questions. Answer ALL questions.
  • Each question is worth ONE mark.
  • For each question there are four options, A, B, C and D. Choose the ONE you think is correct and record it on your answer sheet.
  • You may use a silent, non-programmable electronic calculator.
  • Relative atomic masses: H = 1, C = 12, N = 14, O = 16, Na = 23, Ca = 40, Cu = 64.
  • One mole of any gas occupies 24 dm³ at room temperature and pressure. 1 faraday = 96 500 C.

Paper

Section A — Principles of Chemistry

1. Which of the following is a compound?

A) Water
B) Air
C) Oxygen
D) Brass

2. Which method is used to separate ethanol from a mixture of ethanol and water?

A) Fractional distillation
B) Paper chromatography
C) Filtration
D) Evaporation to dryness

3. Which method is used to find out whether a black ink is a mixture of dyes?

A) Crystallisation
B) Paper chromatography
C) Decanting
D) Filtration

4. In which state does diffusion take place most quickly?

A) It is the same in all three states
B) Solid
C) Gas
D) Liquid

5. An atom has 11 protons and 12 neutrons. Its mass number is

A) 23
B) 34
C) 12
D) 11

6. The electron configuration of magnesium (atomic number 12) is

A) 2, 10
B) 2, 8, 2
C) 2, 2, 8
D) 2, 8, 1, 1

7. Isotopes of an element have the same number of

A) protons, but different numbers of neutrons
B) neutrons, but different numbers of protons
C) nucleons, but different numbers of electrons
D) protons and neutrons

8. An element has the electron configuration 2, 8, 7. In the Periodic Table it is found in

A) Group I, Period 3
B) Group III, Period 7
C) Group VII, Period 3
D) Group VII, Period 2

9. Which pair of elements will combine to form an ionic compound?

A) Hydrogen and chlorine
B) Sodium and chlorine
C) Nitrogen and hydrogen
D) Carbon and oxygen

10. Which molecule contains double covalent bonds?

A) Methane
B) Carbon dioxide
C) Water
D) Hydrogen chloride

11. Which property is typical of ionic compounds?

A) Low melting points, and they never conduct electricity
B) High melting points, and they conduct electricity when solid
C) Low melting points, and they conduct electricity when solid
D) High melting points, and they conduct electricity when molten

12. Graphite conducts electricity because

A) it has delocalised electrons between its layers
B) it contains ions that can move
C) it is a metal
D) its atoms are joined by ionic bonds

13. The formula of aluminium oxide is

A) Al₃O₂
B) Al₂O₃
C) AlO
D) AlO₃

14. The relative formula mass of calcium carbonate, CaCO₃, is

A) 116
B) 68
C) 100
D) 52

15. How many moles of oxygen molecules, O₂, are there in 8.0 g of oxygen gas?

A) 256
B) 0.50
C) 4.0
D) 0.25

16. What is the volume of 0.50 mol of carbon dioxide gas at room temperature and pressure?

A) 48 dm³
B) 12 dm³
C) 24 dm³
D) 0.021 dm³

17. The percentage by mass of nitrogen in ammonium nitrate, NH₄NO₃, is

A) 28%
B) 35%
C) 17.5%
D) 60%

18. Calcium carbonate decomposes on heating: CaCO₃ → CaO + CO₂. What mass of calcium oxide is formed from 50 g of calcium carbonate?

A) 56 g
B) 50 g
C) 22 g
D) 28 g

19. 4.0 g of sodium hydroxide (Mr = 40) is dissolved in water to make 250 cm³ of solution. The concentration of the solution is

A) 16 mol/dm³
B) 0.10 mol/dm³
C) 1.6 mol/dm³
D) 0.40 mol/dm³

20. In the balanced equation __Fe + __O₂ → 2Fe₂O₃, the numbers in front of Fe and O₂ are

A) 2 and 3
B) 4 and 3
C) 2 and 1
D) 4 and 6

21. Which pH value shows a strongly alkaline solution?

A) 7
B) 1
C) 5
D) 13

22. When dilute hydrochloric acid reacts with calcium carbonate, the products are

A) an oxide and hydrogen
B) a salt and hydrogen
C) a salt and water only
D) a salt, water and carbon dioxide

23. 25.0 cm³ of 0.20 mol/dm³ sodium hydroxide is neutralised by 0.10 mol/dm³ sulfuric acid: 2NaOH + H₂SO₄ → Na₂SO₄ + 2H₂O. What volume of acid is needed?

A) 25.0 cm³
B) 12.5 cm³
C) 100 cm³
D) 50.0 cm³

24. Which method is used to prepare the insoluble salt barium sulfate?

A) Precipitation
B) Reacting barium metal with dilute acid
C) Titration
D) Crystallising a solution of the salt

25. In terms of electrons, oxidation is

A) gain of electrons
B) loss of electrons
C) sharing of electrons
D) transfer of electrons to oxygen

26. In the reaction Zn + CuSO₄ → ZnSO₄ + Cu, the reducing agent is

A) copper
B) sulfate ions
C) copper(II) ions
D) zinc

27. Powdered marble reacts faster with dilute acid than marble chips of the same mass because the powder

A) contains a catalyst
B) has a larger surface area
C) has a higher concentration
D) is at a higher temperature

28. A catalyst increases the rate of a reaction because it

A) provides a route with a lower activation energy
B) is used up in the reaction
C) increases the concentration of the reactants
D) increases the energy of the particles

29. Which statement describes an exothermic reaction?

A) The products have more energy than the reactants
B) No energy change takes place
C) Energy is released and the surroundings get warmer
D) Energy is absorbed and the surroundings get colder

30. Molten lead(II) bromide is electrolysed with inert electrodes. What forms at the cathode?

A) Lead
B) Hydrogen
C) Bromine
D) Oxygen

31. Dilute sulfuric acid is electrolysed with inert electrodes. What forms at the anode?

A) Oxygen
B) Sulfur
C) Hydrogen
D) Sulfur dioxide

32. A charge of 96 500 C (1 faraday) is passed through copper(II) sulfate solution: Cu²⁺ + 2e⁻ → Cu. What mass of copper is deposited?

A) 16 g
B) 128 g
C) 32 g
D) 64 g

Section B — Organic Chemistry

33. The general formula of the alkanes is

A) CₙH₂ₙ₊₁OH
B) CₙH₂ₙ
C) CₙH₂ₙ₋₂
D) CₙH₂ₙ₊₂

34. Which compound will decolourise bromine water?

A) Methane
B) Ethanol
C) Ethene
D) Ethane

35. Structural isomers have the same

A) functional group and the same boiling point
B) structural formula, but different molecular formulae
C) molecular formula, but different structural formulae
D) molecular formula and the same structure

36. The compound CH₃CH₂CH₂OH is named

A) propanoic acid
B) propene
C) propane
D) propan-1-ol

37. Ethanol is produced from glucose by fermentation. This process needs

A) an acid catalyst at 300 °C
B) yeast
C) a nickel catalyst
D) concentrated sulfuric acid

38. When ethanoic acid is warmed with ethanol and a little concentrated sulfuric acid, the organic product is

A) ethanal
B) ethane
C) ethyl ethanoate
D) ethene

39. Poly(ethene) is made from ethene by

A) cracking
B) condensation polymerisation
C) addition polymerisation
D) fermentation

40. Which polymer is made by condensation polymerisation?

A) Poly(chloroethene) (PVC)
B) Poly(propene)
C) Nylon
D) Poly(ethene)

41. Soap is made by

A) boiling a fat or oil with sodium hydroxide solution
B) cracking long-chain alkanes
C) fermenting sugar with yeast
D) reacting ethanol with ethanoic acid

42. The products of the complete combustion of methane are

A) carbon dioxide and water
B) carbon dioxide and hydrogen
C) carbon monoxide and water
D) carbon and hydrogen

43. Cracking is used in the petroleum industry to

A) join small molecules into polymers
B) break large alkane molecules into smaller alkanes and alkenes
C) separate crude oil into fractions
D) remove sulfur from fuels

44. The functional group of the carboxylic acids is

A) –COO–
B) –OH
C) C=C
D) –COOH

Section C — Inorganic Chemistry

45. Which of these metals is the MOST reactive?

A) Iron
B) Potassium
C) Copper
D) Magnesium

46. Which metal will displace copper from copper(II) sulfate solution?

A) Gold
B) Platinum
C) Silver
D) Iron

47. In the blast furnace, the main substance that reduces iron(III) oxide to iron is

A) oxygen
B) limestone
C) slag
D) carbon monoxide

48. Aluminium is extracted from its ore by

A) heating aluminium oxide with carbon
B) heating aluminium oxide on its own
C) electrolysis of molten aluminium oxide dissolved in cryolite
D) displacing it with iron

49. Iron rusts only when it is in contact with

A) carbon dioxide only
B) oxygen only
C) both water and oxygen
D) water only

50. Galvanising protects iron from rusting by coating it with

A) zinc
B) copper
C) paint
D) tin

51. Which observation shows that a gas is hydrogen?

A) It burns with a squeaky pop when a lighted splint is applied
B) It turns limewater milky
C) It turns damp red litmus paper blue
D) It relights a glowing splint

52. Carbon dioxide is identified because it

A) relights a glowing splint
B) bleaches damp litmus paper
C) turns limewater milky
D) burns with a squeaky pop

53. Which gas turns damp red litmus paper blue?

A) Hydrogen chloride
B) Ammonia
C) Chlorine
D) Sulfur dioxide

54. A solution gives a white precipitate when dilute nitric acid and silver nitrate solution are added. The solution contains

A) carbonate ions
B) chloride ions
C) sulfate ions
D) nitrate ions

55. A solution gives a white precipitate when dilute hydrochloric acid and barium chloride solution are added. The solution contains

A) chloride ions
B) nitrate ions
C) sulfate ions
D) iodide ions

56. Sodium hydroxide solution is added to a solution containing copper(II) ions. The precipitate formed is

A) white
B) red-brown
C) green
D) blue

57. Sodium hydroxide solution is added to a solution containing iron(III) ions. The precipitate formed is

A) blue
B) green
C) white
D) red-brown

58. Which compound is used as a nitrogenous fertiliser?

A) Sodium chloride
B) Magnesium sulfate
C) Ammonium nitrate
D) Calcium carbonate

59. Acid rain is caused mainly by

A) chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs)
B) carbon monoxide
C) carbon dioxide and methane
D) sulfur dioxide and oxides of nitrogen

60. During the treatment of drinking water, chlorine is added to

A) kill bacteria
B) remove solid particles
C) soften the water
D) remove the colour

END OF TEST


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