Total marks: 60 · Duration: 1 hour 15 minutes
Instructions to candidates
- This paper has 60 questions. Answer ALL questions.
- Each question is worth ONE mark.
- For each question there are four options, A, B, C and D. Choose the ONE you think is correct. In the January 2027 sitting, Paper 01 is taken online, so you select your answer on screen.
- The questions are grouped by syllabus section: Living Organisms and the Environment (1–10), Life Processes and Interdependence (11–38), Heredity and Variation (39–46) and Disease and its Impact on Humans (47–60).
- You may use a silent, non-programmable electronic calculator.
Paper
Section A — Living Organisms and the Environment
1. A car engine takes in fuel and oxygen and gives out waste gases and heat. Why is it NOT a living thing?
A) It does not produce any waste
B) It cannot grow or reproduce
C) It does not respire using oxygen
D) It does not release any energy
2. A farmer eats the goats that graze on his grass. In this food chain, the farmer is a
A) primary consumer
B) secondary consumer
C) decomposer
D) producer
3. Farmers grow pigeon peas to improve poor soil because bacteria in their root nodules
A) fix nitrogen from the air into nitrogen compounds
B) release carbon dioxide into the soil
C) break down nitrates into nitrogen gas
D) kill the pests that live in the soil
4. Producers in an ecosystem trap 50 000 kJ of energy. If 10% passes to each level, how much reaches the tertiary consumers?
A) 500 kJ
B) 50 kJ
C) 5000 kJ
D) 5 kJ
5. A pesticide is found at 0.04 parts per million in lake water but at 20 parts per million in fish-eating birds. This build-up along the food chain is called
A) eutrophication
B) decomposition
C) bioaccumulation
D) biodegradation
6. Clearing trees from steep hillsides MOST often leads to
A) more rainfall and a cooler climate in the area
B) richer soil because more light reaches it
C) soil erosion and flooding further down the valley
D) fewer floods because water drains away faster
7. The population of a country grows rapidly when
A) the death rate falls but the birth rate stays high
B) many people emigrate to other countries
C) the death rate rises faster than the birth rate
D) the birth rate and death rate are equal
8. Which of the following is a renewable energy resource?
A) Petroleum
B) Coal
C) Natural gas
D) Solar energy
9. Fishermen find that the reef fish they catch are getting smaller each year. The MOST likely cause is
A) too many reef fish being born each season
B) the fish choosing to stay small to avoid nets
C) overfishing, which removes fish before they can grow and breed
D) cooler sea water making the fish grow faster
10. Thinning of the ozone layer is a health concern because it allows more
A) oxygen to escape into space, causing breathlessness
B) carbon dioxide to reach the Earth, causing asthma
C) rain to fall on the Earth, causing flooding
D) ultraviolet radiation to reach the Earth, increasing skin cancer
Section B — Life Processes and Interdependence
11. A teenager is growing quickly. Which nutrient is MOST needed for the growth and repair of body tissues?
A) Fat
B) Protein
C) Carbohydrate
D) Fibre
12. Why is dietary fibre important even though it is not digested?
A) It forms the bones and teeth of growing children
B) It is broken down into glucose in the large intestine
C) It adds bulk, helping food move through the gut and preventing constipation
D) It provides most of the energy needed for exercise
13. A person gains weight steadily over several years. The MOST likely reason is that
A) their body uses more energy than they eat
B) they drink too much water with each meal
C) their energy intake from food is greater than the energy they use
D) they eat too much fibre and not enough fat
14. A man has a mass of 72 kg and a height of 1.6 m. Using BMI = mass ÷ height², what is his body mass index?
A) 45.0
B) 11.3
C) 2.6
D) 28.1
15. Pepsin digests protein in the stomach. Which condition does it need?
A) An alkaline pH of about 9
B) An acid pH of about 2
C) The presence of bile salts
D) A temperature of about 60 °C
16. Food moves along the oesophagus and intestines by
A) waves of muscle contraction called peristalsis
B) gravity pulling it down through the body
C) enzymes pushing it along the gut wall
D) cilia sweeping it towards the anus
17. Which of these is a function of the liver?
A) Absorbing water from undigested food
B) Producing insulin and glucagon
C) Converting excess amino acids into urea
D) Producing the enzyme pepsin
18. Which teeth are BEST suited to grinding and crushing food?
A) Milk teeth
B) Canines
C) Molars
D) Incisors
19. Tooth decay begins when
A) fluoride in toothpaste weakens the enamel
B) bacteria turn sugar into acid that dissolves the enamel
C) chewing hard food cracks the gums open
D) calcium in the diet makes the teeth too hard
20. After a long sprint, an athlete keeps breathing hard for several minutes. Why?
A) Extra oxygen is needed to break down the lactic acid that built up
B) The lungs need time to produce more glucose for the muscles
C) The heart must slow down before breathing can return to normal
D) Carbon dioxide is being stored in the muscles for later use
21. During exercise, the breathing rate increases MAINLY because
A) less oxygen is used by the working muscles
B) the brain detects more carbon dioxide in the blood
C) the lungs become larger as the muscles work
D) the heart sends a signal directly to the lungs
22. A student breathes 0.5 dm³ of air with each breath, 16 times a minute. What volume of air does she breathe in each minute?
A) 16.5 dm³
B) 3.2 dm³
C) 32 dm³
D) 8 dm³
23. During an asthma attack, breathing is difficult because
A) the diaphragm stops contracting for several minutes
B) the trachea collapses because it has no cartilage
C) the alveoli fill with blood from damaged capillaries
D) the muscles in the walls of the airways contract, narrowing them
24. Humans have a double circulation. This means that blood
A) passes through the heart twice in one complete circuit of the body
B) travels through two sets of lungs before returning
C) flows in both directions along each blood vessel
D) is pumped by two separate hearts in the chest
25. The valves in the heart and in the veins
A) make blood cells for the circulation
B) prevent blood from flowing backwards
C) push blood forwards by contracting
D) filter bacteria from the blood
26. Substances pass easily between the blood and body cells through capillary walls because the walls are
A) lined with valves
B) covered in cilia
C) made of thick muscle
D) only one cell thick
27. Coronary heart disease is caused mainly by
A) fatty deposits narrowing the arteries that supply the heart muscle
B) too many red blood cells being made in the bone marrow
C) the valves of the heart growing too large to close
D) holes forming in the walls between the heart chambers
28. Why can people with blood group O give blood to people of any ABO group?
A) Their blood clots more slowly than other groups
B) Their red cells carry both A and B antigens
C) Their red cells have no A or B antigens to cause clumping
D) Their plasma contains no antibodies at all
29. On a very hot day, a person's urine is small in volume and dark in colour because
A) sweat glands remove all the urea from the body
B) the kidneys stop filtering blood until the evening
C) less ADH is released, so less water is reabsorbed in the kidneys
D) more ADH is released, so more water is reabsorbed in the kidneys
30. In which part of the nephron does ultrafiltration take place?
A) The ureter
B) The loop of Henle
C) The glomerulus and Bowman's capsule
D) The collecting duct
31. On a cold morning, a person shivers. How does this help?
A) Shivering opens sweat pores to keep heat in
B) Rapid muscle contractions release heat from respiration
C) Shivering widens blood vessels near the skin
D) Shivering stops the body from respiring
32. When a person walks from bright sunlight into a dark room, the pupils become larger. Which part of the eye causes this?
A) The iris
B) The retina
C) The lens
D) The cornea
33. A long-sighted person sees distant objects clearly but not near ones. This is corrected with
A) flat glass lenses
B) convex (converging) lenses
C) concave (diverging) lenses
D) tinted lenses
34. Which neurone carries impulses from the central nervous system to a muscle?
A) Motor neurone
B) Receptor cell
C) Relay neurone
D) Sensory neurone
35. Why is it dangerous to drive after drinking alcohol?
A) Alcohol is a stimulant that makes the heart stop
B) Alcohol is a depressant that slows reactions and impairs judgement
C) Alcohol makes the eyes see objects much larger
D) Alcohol speeds up nerve impulses too much
36. At a joint such as the knee, the ends of the bones are covered by cartilage, which
A) holds the bones together
B) produces red blood cells
C) joins muscle to bone
D) reduces friction and absorbs shock
37. Many women over 60 develop brittle bones. Which lifestyle advice would MOST help to prevent this?
A) Drink more coffee to keep the bones strong
B) Eat more sugar to give the bones extra energy
C) Avoid all exercise so the bones are not worn down
D) Eat enough calcium and vitamin D, and do weight-bearing exercise
38. When the arm is straightened, the triceps contracts and the biceps
A) relaxes
B) contracts
C) becomes a tendon
D) pushes the bone
Section C — Heredity and Variation
39. Meiosis is important because it produces gametes that
A) are genetically identical to the parent cell
B) can grow into new adults without fertilisation
C) have double the normal chromosome number
D) have half the chromosome number and show variation
40. Albinism is caused by a recessive allele (a). Two parents who are both carriers (Aa) have a child. What is the probability that the child is albino?
A) 0
B) 3 in 4
C) 1 in 2
D) 1 in 4
41. A gene is best described as
A) a cell that divides to form gametes
B) a pair of chromosomes of the same shape
C) a section of DNA that codes for a particular protein
D) a whole chromosome found in the nucleus
42. Which of these can increase the rate of mutation?
A) Drinking clean, treated water
B) Eating a balanced diet rich in protein
C) Exposure to X-rays and other ionising radiation
D) Regular moderate exercise
43. Which human characteristic shows discontinuous variation?
A) ABO blood group
B) Hand span
C) Body mass
D) Height
44. Identical twins are formed when
A) two eggs are fertilised by one sperm
B) one egg is fertilised by two sperm
C) one fertilised egg splits into two embryos
D) two eggs are fertilised by two sperm
45. Red-green colour blindness is more common in males than in females because
A) females are protected by hormones from the condition
B) males have two X chromosomes that both carry the allele
C) males have only one X chromosome, so one recessive allele shows
D) the allele is carried on the Y chromosome, which females lack
46. A couple with a family history of sickle-cell anaemia visit a genetic counsellor. The counsellor's MAIN role is to
A) explain the chances of their children inheriting the condition
B) cure the condition in the couple themselves
C) decide whether the couple may have children
D) change the genes of their future children
Section D — Disease and its Impact on Humans
47. Tuberculosis (TB) is caused by a
A) worm
B) bacterium
C) virus
D) fungus
48. Rats in a community spread leptospirosis. Which measure would BEST reduce the risk to people?
A) Spraying insecticide into drains each week
B) Storing food in sealed containers and avoiding wading in flood water
C) Boiling all drinking water for one minute
D) Sleeping under insecticide-treated nets
49. Which disease is spread MAINLY by drinking water contaminated with faeces?
A) Cholera
B) Tuberculosis
C) Influenza
D) Dengue fever
50. A child who often walks barefoot in damp soil develops anaemia. Which parasite is the MOST likely cause?
A) Tapeworm, from eating undercooked pork
B) Hookworm, whose larvae enter through the skin
C) Head lice, from sharing combs
D) Malaria parasite, from mosquito bites
51. Some white blood cells protect the body by
A) carrying oxygen to infected tissues
B) producing hormones that kill bacteria
C) forming clots to seal wounds
D) engulfing and digesting pathogens
52. Which cells produce antibodies?
A) Red blood cells
B) Platelets
C) Phagocytes
D) Lymphocytes
53. Why do health authorities try to vaccinate most children in a country, not just some?
A) High coverage stops the disease spreading, protecting those who cannot be vaccinated
B) Vaccines are cheaper when they are given to the whole country
C) Vaccinated children pass their antibodies to others in school
D) Vaccines only work when every person receives the same dose
54. A patient stops taking antibiotics as soon as she feels better. Why does this help resistant bacteria to spread?
A) Her white blood cells stop working altogether
B) The bacteria that survive are the most resistant, and they multiply
C) The antibiotic kills only the harmless bacteria
D) The antibiotic turns into a virus inside her body
55. HIV weakens the immune system by
A) destroying the lymphocytes that coordinate the immune response
B) blocking the arteries that carry blood to the heart
C) destroying red blood cells so less oxygen is carried
D) killing the cells that line the stomach and gut
56. Gonorrhoea can be treated with antibiotics, but genital herpes cannot. Why?
A) Antibiotics only work on infections of the skin
B) Gonorrhoea is caused by a virus, but herpes is caused by a bacterium
C) Herpes is not an infection, so it cannot be treated
D) Gonorrhoea is caused by a bacterium, but herpes is caused by a virus
57. Which lifestyle factor MOST increases the risk of developing type 2 diabetes?
A) Drinking plenty of water each day
B) Eating fruit and vegetables daily
C) Obesity combined with lack of exercise
D) Sleeping eight hours each night
58. Cancer develops when
A) cells divide in an uncontrolled way, forming a tumour
B) bacteria multiply in the blood and attack organs
C) the body stops making new cells altogether
D) a virus is passed on by mosquito bites
59. Why do many smokers find it very hard to stop smoking?
A) Tar makes the lungs larger and needs more smoke
B) Carbon monoxide gives extra energy to the muscles
C) Smoke cleans the airways, so the smoker feels healthier
D) Nicotine is addictive, causing cravings when it is stopped
60. Cooked rice left out on a kitchen counter overnight can cause food poisoning, but rice kept in a refrigerator is safer. Why?
A) Bacteria cannot survive in food that contains starch
B) The refrigerator adds chemicals that preserve food
C) Low temperatures slow the growth of bacteria
D) Low temperatures kill the bacteria in the food